How do we know this? Has there been a ruling? Wouldn't we need to take this before SCOTUS to find out? I mean if the 2nd amendment also protects ammunition under the logic that it is required to make arms meaningful, why would it not follow that the constitution requires a vote to make "shall advise and consent" meaningful? Even if we lost, it would still be a fun summer fling.
Well, most of us know this because we can read the constitution, and the language is clear. Also, I suspect you are not familiar with the "political question" doctrine which has been applied in the federal courts for decades. Who would have standing?