Originally posted by Dave Wyatt:
I don't understand how you can argue that God did not approve of slavery. Where in the Bible is there any condemnation of the institution of slavery?
"He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death." Exodus 21:16 (Amplified Bible)
Does this sound like an approval of slavery?
Did you understand what I said about the social structure of ancient Israel and the world in general?
I know at least one poster here thinks I say it too much, but, CONTEXT!!!
In the context of the times are you aware that Hebrew families would sell themselves or family members into servitude in order survive? Are you aware of the Year of Jubilee? Do you know that in the Year of Jubilee the Hebrew "slave" was set free?
You're so sure that your understanding is complete on this but I question your familiarity with the follow verses:
Exodus 21:26-27
"If a man strikes the eye of his male or female slave, and destroys it, he shall let him go free on account of his eye. "And if he knocks out a tooth of his male or female slave, he shall let him go free on account of his tooth."
Exodus 21:12
"He who strikes a man so that he dies shall surely be put to death."
Exodus 23:12
"Six days you are to do your work, but on the seventh day you shall cease from labor so that your ox and your donkey may rest, and the son of your female slave, as well as your stranger, may refresh themselves."
Leviticus 25:39-43
"If a countryman of yours becomes so poor with regard to you that he sells himself to you, you shall not subject him to a slave's service. 'He shall be with you as a hired man, as if he were a sojourner; he shall serve with you until the year of jubilee. 'He shall then go out from you, he and his sons with him, and shall go back to his family, that he may return to the property of his forefathers. 'For they are My servants whom I brought out from the land of Egypt; they are not to be sold in a slave sale. 'You shall not rule over him with severity, but are to revere your God."
Exodus 21:2
"If you buy a Hebrew slave, he shall serve for six years; but on the seventh he shall go out as a free man without payment."
Proverbs 29:21
"He who pampers his slave from childhood will in the end find him to be a son."
Honestly I don't expect to change your mind, but I won't let you get away with the statements you made without responding with the truth.
"So on one of the burining questions of human history, God kind of takes an offhands attitude to the whole thing. He is more concerned with other things, like sodomy."
I suspect you meant "hands-off attitude", but ya, you betcha. Such a hands-off attitude that Jesus Christ was sacrificed on the cross for the sins of mankind.
Now there's a God with no vested interest.
But I am not just speaking about Israel or even the Old Testament necessarily. Jesus
operated within the Roman Empire. Slavery within Rome was not indentured
servitude, but chattel slavery. Different from chattel slavery in modern times,
but slavery nonetheless. Christians that try to justify the Bible on this always
fall back on the position that slavery was different in Ancient times or that it
was more like indentured servitude. It had its own unique characteristics, but
it was still slavery.
Even the Bible recognizes that this “indentured servitude” in Israel was more
than just a labor contract for a set number of years, which you are trying to
reduce it to.
You do realize that there is a huge difference between a labor contract (or even
an apprenticeship) and what
we are talking about here? Under a labor contract today, I am bound to the terms
of the contract for a set time period. However, I am also free to break such
contract, but must suffer the legal penalties for doing so. I might be fined
heavily, but I will not be beaten, killed or imprisoned for violating said
“servitude”. I am still free labor.
This is not what we are talking about in the Bible by any means. I know what
slavery was in Rome, but honestly I am not familiar with the system in Israel.
However, let’s take the Bible at it word on this and even use your translation
(Amplified). I will concede that the Bible is accurate in regards to this.
Thus we have:
Leviticus 25:
44 As for your bondmen and your bondmaids whom you may have, they shall
be from the nations round about you, of whom you may buy bondmen and bondmaids.
45 Moreover, of the children of the strangers who sojourn among you, of them you
may buy and of their families that are with you which they have begotten in your
land, and they shall be your possession.
46 And you shall make them an inheritance for your children after you, to hold
for a possession; of them shall you take your bondmen always, but over your
brethren the Israelites you shall not rule one over another with harshness
(severity, oppression).
Using the term "bondmen" might be less harsh than slave, but we are still
speaking about chattel here, no matter how the person entered into the position.
Putting Exodus 21:16 within the context of these passages reads that it is
probably not kosher to steal slaves or kidnap your neighbor and sell into
slavery. You could use it as a condemnation of the slave trade, but that
is stretching it a bit, especially since Exodus deals with how one is to engage
in the buying and selling of bondmen (read slaves).
And then there is
Exodus 21:
7 If a man sells his daughter
to be a maidservant or bondwoman, she shall not go out [in six years] as
menservants do.
8 If she does not please her
master who has not espoused her to himself, he shall let her be redeemed. To
sell her to a foreign people he shall have no power, for he has dealt
faithlessly with her.
9 And if he espouses her to
his son, he shall deal with her as with a daughter.
10 If he marries again, her
food, clothing, and privilege as a wife shall he not diminish.
11 And if he does not do
these three things for her, then shall she go out free, without payment of
money.
So it is OK to sell your daughters into servitude, where the master can force
her to marry his son? And what exactly does
"if she does not please her master who has not espoused her to himself"
mean? Screwing the maidservant is OK, but in the end, you really need to marry
her?
Is this morally repugnant to you at all? Or do
we just chalk it up as one of God's wonderful, wacky way of doing things?
You don't suppose God could have stepped in and said "Guys, this just isn't
right!"?
And lest we think that being an "indentured servant" was all fun and games
Exodus 21
20 And if a man strikes his servant
or his maid with a rod and he [or she] dies under his hand, he shall surely be
punished.
21 But if the servant lives on
for a day or two, the offender shall not be punished, for he [has injured] his
own property.
Note the term "property". And this is using your translation, which has
the nicer term servant, rather than slave. We are not talking about a
simple labor contract here. "Hey come and work for me for seven years and
I will pay off your debts! We'll have a grand time!".
Granted the Ancient world was a brutal place, with different customs and
outlooks. Nobody opposed slavery as an institution, not even the slaves
themselves. The slave revolts in Rome were not aimed at abolishing the
institution, but at simple freeing themselves. One would have thought that
God could have transcended all this, since the Bible is supposedly a guide on
how mankind is to live his life and not just how to do it 2000+ years ago. Instead, we
have a God that is at best pandering to this social backwardness. The
average person on the street today has more morality many times over than the
God of the Old Testament.
So let's move on the the more "enlightened" New Testament. Here we have
Jesus running around the Eastern edge of the Roman Empire shooting his mouth
off. Wow! The perfect chance to condemn the institution of slavery
as it then existed in Rome. Not only that, but make a statement for those
who will live in the centuries to come, including the Southern plantation owners
in the United States.
I will leave Luke 12 out of this, since it is a parable, but it doesn't
bolster the anti-slavery argument and in fact leans the other way. So
where does Jesus condemn the ownership of other humans? He doesn't.
He has a lot to say about other more terrible things like adultery, pride,
divorce, etc., but not about one of
the major questions of human history.
Other parts of the New Testament have things to say though:
Ephesians 6:
5 Servants (slaves), be obedient
to those who are your physical masters, having respect for them and eager
concern to please them, in singleness of motive and with all your heart, as
[service] to Christ [Himself]--
This is the Amplified translation.
Note to translator: Let's remove that nasty slave reference, since it is so
impolitic. Don't know how we missed that one!
1 Timothy 6
1 LET ALL who are under the yoke as bond servants esteem their own [personal]
masters worthy of honor and fullest respect, so that the name of God and the
teaching [about Him] may not be brought into disrepute and blasphemed.
I don't have a big problem with placing the teachings of the Bible within the
context of the times. Put if you do this, what criteria are you going to
use to pick and choose which is just a part of the times and which is relevant
to today? "Owning other people is morally wrong today, because the times
have changed, but there is no way same sex people can marry. That is just
morally wrong and sinful."
The Bible is supposed to be a moral guide for all time, without which mankind
will sink into degeneracy and sin even more than he is. Yet treating
others as property doesn't seem to deserve mention as an unqualified Biblical
no-no.